We did a demonstration using a coil of wire hooked up to a galvanometer, which detects any current induced in the wire. We examined very qualitatively the effects of a magnet on the current in the wire (We can find the corresponding emfs by using Ohm's Relationship):
Now, there should be one question still bothering you. What is
it?
Try an example. Suppose that a loop of wire is lying
horizontally
on the table before you, and that you are bringing a bar magnet down
toward
it, south pole first. In which direction wil the induced current
flow?
So, in general, as the magnetic field though a loop gets weaker,
the emf will be the same as it would be for a magnet being pulled away
from the loop:
What would we do if the flux were changing due to a change in the area
or the orientation of the loop?
We need to be able to twist the situation around a bit until it looks
like a magnet moving towards or away from the loop. In that case, fewer
B-field lines will be passing through the loop to the right, which we
can
once again simulate by pulling the magnet shown above away to the left.
Then, we know that the current induced in the loop will try to form a
south
pole on the left side of the loop, and so the current must be going
down
the front side and up the back side of the loop.
Similarly, if we were to tilt the loop, so that fewer B-field lines pass through it, we could simulate that situation also with a north pole on the left being pulled away.
This last concept, that the induced emf will try to act to oppose
any
change in the system is called Lenz's Law; we'll remind
ourselves
of it by inserting a negative sign in the relationship developed above,
which then appears as
e = (-) N dfM/dt.
This is known as Faraday's Law of Induction.
Faraday's Law does not come out of thin air; we can show that it is
equivalent to an effect we've seen before. Consider the very
special
case of a U-shaped wire situated with its plane perpendicular to a
uniform
magnetic field, B. Consider further a light, conductive bar of
length
l,
the ends of which lie on the wire and which is constrained to move
along
the wires without friction, as shown.
Let's assume that the bar is distance x from the left end and that
it is moving to the right with speed v. If we look at the loop
formed
by the bar and the three sides of the wire to the bar's left, we see
that
there is a magnetic flux given by
FM = BAcosqB,A
= B*(lx)*1.
Faraday's Law then indicates that (since N = 1 here)
e = (-)
N dFM/dt
= (-) d(Blx)/dt
= (-) Bl d(x)/dt
= (-) Blv.
The direction of the emf can be obtained this way: Increasing
the area of the loop increases the flux in that same way that
increasing
the B-field strength would, and we could do that by bringing
the
north pole of a bar magnet down toward the loop from above the page. Per
the discussion above, this would make an induced north pole form just
above
the loop, and by the RHR, this pole would be formed at that location by
a counter-clockwise current.
Now, instead consider the charges residing in the bar. These
are
moving through a magnetic field with a speed v, and like all such
charges,
they will experience a deflecting force given by
FM = qvB sinqv,B (RHR)
In this case, the angle is 90o, and the electrons wil be
deflected toward the bottom of the page, while protons will be
deflected
toward the top of the page. Since protons are almost 2000 times
as
heavy as electrons, and because they are connected together by atomic
bonds,
and because there may well be other outside forces acting on the bulk
of
this bar which will cancel the magnetic forces on the protons, we shall
ignore said forces and concentrate on the forces on the
electrons.
The force on charge q's worth of electrons will be
FM = qvB.
As the electrons work their way from the top of the bar to the bottom,
work will be done:
W = Fd cosqF,d = FMl
= qvBl.
Since the kinetic energy of the electrons doesn't change (drift
velocity
is constant), this work can be considered to be an increase in
potential
energy:
W = DPE (note that there's no negative
sign,
because the potential energy we're considering is not associated with
the
magnetic force).
What is the emf? It's the difference in potential between the two ends
of the bar, and potential is the potential energy per unit charge:
e = DV
= DPE/q = W/q = qvBl/q = Blv.
What's the direction of this emf? We said that the electrons
will experience a force toward the bottom of the page, which means that
the current is actually flowing toward the top of the page in the bar (i.e.,
counter-clockwise around the loop), and so the emf is directed in the
same
manner. Quelle surprise, eh?
The point of this is to demonstrate (for a very easy case, anyway) that the emf which seems to appear by magic in a coil is actually due to real forces acting on real charges moving though real (or at least, they are real in our present model) magnetic fields.
In fact, this emf will exist in the bar whether there is a loop
connected
to it or not. In that case, the charges feel the magnetic force,
same as before, but they can not escape around the loop, so instead,
they
will collect at the ends of the bar (one end positive and the other
negative).
As a result, an internal electric field will be set up, runnng in this
case from the top end to the bottom end. Equilibrium wil be
reached
when the electric force on a charge is balanced by the magnetic force:
qE = qvB,
E = vB.
There is a potential difference associated with the electric field
(here, d = l):
e = DV
= (-) Ed = E l = [Bv] l = Bvl,
as before.
Just for fun, let's add a resistor to the circuit and investigate
what
happens to the energy in the system. We've already decided that
there
is an emf in the loop, which will drive a current:
I = e/R = Blv/R.
The power dissipated in the resisor will be
P = I2R = B2l2v2/R.
Where does this energy originate? Since there is a current in
the bar, there is also a magnetic force acting (by the RHR) to the left
of magnitude IlB. There may well be magnetic forces on the
other parts of the loop, but since the loop is presumably nailed down,
those forces will be cancelled by mechanical forces. This
magnetic
force should act to slow and eventually stop the bar's motion towards
the
right. To keep the bar moving at a constant speed, as was
stipulated
at the top of this section, we need to apply our own force of
magnitude
IlB to the right.
FApplied = IlB = [Blv/R]lB
= B2l2v/R.
Correspondingly, what power must be applied?
P = Fv = [B2l2v/R]v = B2l2v2/R.
So, we see that the energy must come form somewhere, either through
an external agency doing work or perhaps from the kinetic energy of the
bar as it slows.
Let's examine a system for which it might be fairly easy to
calculate
L: the solenoid. Consider a solenoid of N turns with length l
and radius r. If l >>r, we might think that the
B-field
generated
inside the solenoid is approximately the same as that in an infinite
solenoid:
B = monI = mo[N/l]
I.
Each loop of the solenoid will experience a magnetic flux; since the
magnitude of the B-field is constant all along the cross-sectional area
and everywhere perpendicular to the cross-sectional area, the flux is
easy
to calculate:
FM = BA = mo[N/l]
I pr2.
Now, the emf is given by Faraday's Law:
e = (-)
N dFM/dt
= (-) N d[mo[N/l]
I pr2]/dt.
Since the current is the only quantity changing here, this can be
rewritten
as:
e = (-) [moN2pr2/
l
] dI/dt.
Comparison of this result to our expected form reveals that
Lsolenoid = moN2pr2/l.
Applications of inductors include:
power spike and noise suppression (the rapidly changing currents
associated
with the spikes create a reverse emf in the inductor), high frequency
filtres
(same effect), and automobile ignition systems (rapidly disconnecting
an
inductor from a 12.6V driven current can produce a several thousand
volt
emf across the spark plug gap).
Here is a useful example of mutual inductance. Consider two
coils
with N1 and N2 turns, respectively, each wrapped
around a frame made of soft iron, which is easily magnetized.
We'll drive a current through coil 1 with a varying voltage,
V1. Since V1 is varying in time, the
current
I1 will do so also. I1 causes a magnetic
field
in coil 1, some of the lines of which pass through coil 2. Now,
the
soft iron has the property of re-directing these magnetic field lines
through
itself, so that a very large fraction of them will pass through coil 2;
in fact, we'll assume that 100% of them do so, although in real life,
the
figure is more like 96%. Now, when I1 changes, the
flux
through coil 2 will induce an emf, perhaps causing a current I2
in coil 2, which will in turn cause its own magnetic field which also
passes
through both coils and is changing with time (although, the existence
of
I2 is not necessary to this derivation). At any rate,
each
loop in each of the two coil experiences a flux due to the fields
generated
by itself and by the other loops. These fluxes are the same
(regardless
of their sources), since one interpretation of the flux is that it is
proportional
to the number of B-field lines passing through, and we stipulated that
all lines pass through each coil. So,
FM1 = FM2.
Now, if two quantities are always equal, then their time rates of
change
must also always be equal, so,
dFM1/dt
= dFM2/dt.
Now, each coil will have an induced emf described by Faraday's
Law:
e1 = (-)
N1dFM1/dt
e2 = (-)
N2dFM2/dt.
and so
e1/N1
=
(-)dFM1/dt
= (-)dFM2/dt
= e2/N2
e1/N1
=
e2/N2
By Kirchhoff's Loop Law, V1 + e1
=0 and V2 + e,
=0, so
V1/V2 = N1/N2.
So, we see that we can use such a device (called a transformer)
to step-up or step-down the amplitude of a time varying voltage.
We did a demonstration with a transformer with a turn ratio of
10:1.
By applying a 10V sinusoidal voltage to the primary coil, we
could
obtain a 1 volt output across the secondary coil, or, by
reversing
the coils, a 100 volt output.
You may see transformers every day. The power company produces
electricity at about 1000V, then steps it up to 100,000V for
transmission
over long distances (thousands of miles). As the lines get closer
to the consumer, other transformers lower the voltage back down to the
thousands, then to the hundreds. Normally, each house has a
transformer
just outside (either on a pole or often just sitting on the front lawn)
which lowers the voltage to 220V. Why not lower it right away to
the familiar 110V?
Typically,
electric ranges and air conditioners run on 220V.
The quantity RC is often referred to as the capacitive time
constant
of the circuit,
tC = RC,
which can be thought of as the time necessary for some quantity to
decay to 1/e of its initial value. Conceptually, it is similar to
the notion of a half-life, except that is the time necessary to
fall to 1/2 of the initial value.
So, we could write that
q(t) = eBC
(1 - e- t/tC);
I(t) = [eB/R]e-
t/tC
(Charging from empty case)
q(t) = eBC
e- t/tC;
I(t) = - [eB/R]e-
t/tC
(Discharging from full case).
If we wait for a very long time, the current will achieve an
ultimate
value of
IFinal = eB/R.
At that time, let's quickly switch the circuit to remove the battery.
Since the inductor will oppose the drop in the current, it will work
to keep the current flowing. Kirchhoff's Loop Law in that case
is:
IR = - L ddI/dt,
the solution to which is
I(t) = [eB/R]e-
tR/L.
Here, we can define the inductive time constant tL
as L/R, so that these equations become:
I(t) = [eB/R](1
- e- t/tL),
and
I(t) = [eB/R]e-
t/tL.
Consider this. In each of the cases discussed above, the RC
and
the LR circuits, current flowed even after the battery was
disconnected,
even if it decreased pretty rapidly towards zero. Since there was
current flowing through a resistor, we know that energy was being
dissipated as heat. From where did this energy come if not from
the
battery? We'll, in the case of the RC circuit, we've already
discussed
how energy can be stored in a capacitor:
UC = 1/2 [1/C] Q2.
So, we might surmise that energy had to have been stored in the
inductor
as well. We will assert now (and show later) that the energy
stored
in the magnetic field in an inductor is
UL = 1/2 L I2.