How was that quality transferred into the object? A force
was applied, but the force must have acted through a
displacement. Let us call the transfer of energy into (or
out of) an object the work done on the object. The
bigger the force, the more energy is transferred, and the greater
the displacement over which the force acted, the more energy is
transferred. What's more, there is an effect due to the
relative orientation of the force with the displacement:
If F and Dx are in the
same direction, energy is transferred into the object and
we say that positive work was done.
If F and Dx are in the
opposite directions, energy is transferred out of
the object and we say that negative work was done.
If F and Dx are
perpendicular, no energy is transferred into the object
and we say that no work was done.
How can we write this in a more mathematical way? Let the
work W be defined as:
W = F (Dx) cosqF,Dx,
that is, as the magnitude of the force times the magnitude of the
displacement, times the cosine of the angle between those
two vectors. So,
if F and Dx are
parallel, qF,Dx=
0o and W = FDx (positive).
if F and Dx are anti-parallel,
qF,Dx
= 180o and W = - FDx
(negative).
if F and Dx are
perpendicular, qF,Dx
= 90o and there is no work done.
The guess of the cosine function is not quite as arbitrary as it
seems. Consider a force applied at some random angle as
shown here.
We can always decompose the force vector into a component
perpendicular to the displacement (which will do no work) and one
parallel (or anti-parallel) to the displacement which will perform
work
W = (Fcosq) Dx,
as before. This leads us to an alternate way of writing the
definition of work:
W = F|| Dx.
Indeed, we could also look at the work as the whole force times
the component of the displacement in the direction of the force:
W = F Dx ||.
It might be useful to review vector multiplicaton
at this point. There are several types of
multiplication, of which we will discuss two.
We define the scalar product (also called the inner
product or the dot product) of two vectors
A and B to be: Another type of vector multiplication is the vector
product or the cross product: AxB.
We define the magnitude of the cross product to be We'll discuss quantities that can be written as cross products later. |
What if the force applied were not constant (or in other
words, we have a variable force)? Clearly, more work
would be done in some displacement intervals than in others.
We need to break the overall displacement down into very small
displacements Dxn, over
which we can consider the force to be relatively constant at value
FDxn; we then find the work
done over that interval to be WDxn
= FDxn Dxn . Then the work done
by the force is
WF = SDxnWDxn = SDxn FDxn Dxn
This value approaches the area under the force-displacement curve
as the widths of the Dxi's
go toward zero.
W =
F .dx.
What if the curve were to go below the axis? Then the work
would be negative. What if the Dx
values were negative? That would also switch the sign of the
work.
What if we're working in 3d? Then we write that
W = F(r) .dr,
which gives one term in each of the x, y, and z directions.
Let's stop for a second. We've defined the work, but we can
define anything we please to be whatever we please; what's the
point? The definition is meaningful only if it is
useful. Let's think back to the beginning of this
discussion. We talked about the work on an object as a
transfer of energy, so that we should be able to say that the work
is the change in the amount of this energy stuff that the
object possesses, i.e., W = DE.
Keep this in mind as we do a little derivation:
Consider the two relations, where the acceleration is not constant:
a = dv/dt and v
= dr/dt
This time, let's perform a dot product on each side to obtain
a . dr/dt = v .
dv/dt
a . dr = v . dv
We might assume that the acceleration is a functiom of time, but
it might as well be a function of position instead.
a(r) . dr = v .
dv
Let's make use of Newton's second law, FNET =
ma, to obtain
(1/m) FNET(r) . dr
= v . dv
and integrate
Net force | causes | change in velocity (acceleration) |
Net work | causes | change in kinetic energy |
? | causes | change in ? |
Note that it is nothing more than Newton's Second Law, combined with two definitions. Why bother? We will find that this picture will be on occasion more convenient to use than forces and accelerations, especially in cases where we don't need to know the time a trip takes, or when the acceleration is not constant (see Note 1 below).
Note also that work is a
scalar. Since the kinetic energy depends on the speed of
an object, and not the direction of the object's motion, it is a
scalar; the work is the change in the KE, so it too is a
scalar. Although we did this derivation for one dimension,
it can be done quite easily for three with the same result (see
Note 2 below). A combination of
these arguments let's us assert that the result is valid even
for variable forces in three dimensions.
Consider a block of mass m = 5
kg at the top of a frictionless ramp L = 2 metres long, which is
inclined at q = 37o to the
horizontal.
If the mass starts from rest at
the top, how quickly will it be moving when it reaches the
bottom? Draw a free-body diagram:
WN = 0, since the force is perpendicular to the
displacement
Wg = mg L cosqmg,Dx
WN + Wg =
1/2mvf2 - 1/2mvi2
mg L cosqmg,Dx
= 1/2mvf2
vf2 =
2g L cosqmg,Dx
vf =
[2g L cosqmg,Dx
]1/2 = [2*10*2*cos53o]1/2 =
4.9 m/s.
Now, let's suppose that the block started out with an initial
velocity of 6 m/s down the plane. Make a guess what the
speed will be at the bottom:
Are you surprised? What went wrong with your guess?
Isn't the acceleration the same in each case?
Here is another throught
question: Suppose that I drop an object from a given
height; the force of gravity (the object's weight) does work and
the kinetic energy of the object increases. Now, suppose
instead that I slowly lower the object slowly from the same
initial altitude. Compare the work done by gravity in the
second case to the work done in the first case.
There are a number of ways to define what a conservative force
is. I like to say that a conservative force is one for which
the work it does on an object moving from Point A to Point B is
independent of the path the object takes. Let's take the
weight of an object as a concrete example. Suppose that I
lower a mass m from a height h above the table to the top of the
table. I'm only interested at this point in what the weight
does, not what any other force, such as from my hand, does.
The force is mg downward, and the displacement is h downward, and
those two vectors are parallel, so we have that
Wg = (mg)(h)(cos0o) = mgh.
Now, let's take the object on a little tour of the region.
Move it horizontally a displacement s, then down h, then
horizontally again s', back to point B:
The work done will be
WAB = mg s cos 90o + mg h cos 0o
+ mg s' cos 90o = mgh,
again.
Let's pick a random path:
You might be able to see that we can always approximate any path
to an arbitrary degree of accuracy with these stepped horizontal
and vertical movements. From previous discussion, we know
that any horizontal movements will correspond to no work being
done by gravity. The vertical displacements are each of
magnitude hi , some parallel to the weight and some
anti-parallel, such that the work done by the weight during each
vertical motion is
Wvertical = Snmg
hn cosqn
= mg Sn hncosqn, where cosqn
= +1 if the displacement is downward (parallel to the force) and
-1 if the displacement is upward (anti-parallel to the force).
We realize that Sn hncosqn = h,
and see that
Wvertical = Sn
mg hn cosqn
= mgh,
as before, so that the work done by the weight throughout the
whole trip is
WAB = mgh,
independent of the path taken.
Let's consider an example of a non-conservative force:
friction. Consider an object being slid across a table top
along two paths (let all Dx's be the
same magnitude):
Remember that we are not concerned with the work done by any other
force, such as that of the hand which pushes the block.
The frictional force will be (not proven here):
Ff = mKmg,
so that the work done by friction from Point A to Point B along
the direct path is
Wdirect = Ff Dx
cos(180o) = -mKmg
Dx.
Along the indirect path, this will be three times bigger:
Windirect = -mKmg
Dx1 - mKmg
Dx2 - mKmg
Dx3. = -3mKmg
Dx.
So, we see that friction is not a conservative force.
To do this, we divide the total work on an object into two types,
depending on whether each force is conservative or
non-conservative:
Wcons + Wnon-cons = DKE
- DPE + Wnon-cons = DKE
Wnon-cons = DKE + DPE.
Remember that there may well be more than one conservative force
operating on the object, which would require us to have more than
one DPE term. Also remember that
one should not put the term on both sides of the relationship;
don't count gravity's effect as both a work and as a potential
energy.
Can we figure out what the gravitational potential energy
function is? Not really. We can only figure out an
expression for the change in the PE. Suppose that we
let y be the vertical location of the object, and that we lift (or
lower) the object by some displacement Dy.
The force of gravity is of course downward, so if we lift the
object, Dy is positive, the angle
between the weight and the displacement is 180o, so the
work done is equal to (mg)(Dy) (-1) =
-mg Dy, while the change in PE is the
negative of that, or +mgDy. If we
lowered the object, the signs of each term (work and DPE) would correspondingly reverse.
So
DPEgrav = mg Dy,
and it seems O.K. to say that
PEgrav = mgy,
so long as we keep in mind that the assignation of PE = 0 is
arbitrary.
Later, we'll discuss the potential energy from a different
conservative force.
As an extra comment, consider the following:
DPE = -W
d(PE) =
-
F(x) dx
Then,
d(PE) = -F(x) dx
F(x) = - d(PE)/dx
For example, let's look once again at the falling pen. Just
after release, the pen has zero KE and mgh of PE (we'll let PE = 0
at the table top). Just before hitting the table,
the PE = 0 and the KE is not zero, and in fact equals numerically
mgh:
KEi + PEi = KEf + PEf
0 + mgh = 1/2mvf2 +
0.
Right after the pen hits the table, it has no PE and no
KE! What happened to the energy?
Is the spring force conservative? A quick look suggests that it is. Since the force exerted by the spring depends only on the position of the end of the spring (we'll assume that the other end is fixed), reversing the displacement back over already covered ground simply undoes the work done the first time (by flipping the sign of the cosine term), so that the net work done depends only on the initial and final positions of the end of the spring.
How much work is necessary to stretch (or compress) a spring
distance x from its relaxed position? We can use the
graphical representation showing Fon spring as a linear
function of c (slope = k):
We showed previously that the work done by any variable force is
represented by the area under the curve. Since this is a
triangle, the area is one-half the base times the height:
A = 1/2bh = 1/2(c) (F) = 1/2(c)(kc) = 1/2kc2.
So, the work done on the spring is 1/2kc2, the work done by the
spring is -1/2kc2,
and the change in the PE of the spring is the negative of that, or
DPE = +1/2kc2.
If we define the PE to be zero at c =
0 (the relaxed position), then we can say more simply that PEspring
= 1/2kc2.
Let's do this again using calculus. Move the spring from
its relaxed position to some arbitrary position, c.
Won spring = 0 c Fspring(c) dc = 0
c
kc dc =
1/2kc2 -
0.
The work done by the spring will be, by the third law,
Wby spring = - 1/2kc2.
Then, since DPEsp = - W by
spring,
PEsp f - PEsp i = + 1/2kc2.
Since we can choose the PE to be zero wherever we please, it seems
natural to define PEsp = PEsp i = 0 when the
spring is relaxed, so that
PEsp = 1/2kc2.
Now, some fun with springs. Occasionally, we see more than
one spring attached to an object. What would be the
effective spring constant of more than one spring, i.e., what would kEFF
for a single spring be to do the same job as the multiple springs?
If the springs are both attached to the object, it's easy:
FIGURE
FTOT = F1 + F2 = -k1c1 - k2c2 = -(k1 + k2)
c = -kEFF c; kEFF = k1
+ k2.
If the springs are attached end to end,
FIGURE
FTOT = F1 = F2
c1 + c2 = cTOT
F1/k1 + F2/k2 = FTOT/kEFF
1/kEFF = 1/k1 + 1/k2
We obtain an interesting result if we re-introduce the definition
of the velocity, v = dx/dt:
P = dW/dt = [F dx
cosq]/dt
= Fcosq[dx/dt]
= Fvcosq.
Start with the Work-Energy Theorem:
WNC = DKE + DPE
What forces act on the block? There's the weight, the normal
force from the plane, friction, and the spring force. The
weight and spring force can be treated as potential; energy terms,
and the normal force does no work (it's perpendicular to the
displacement). The friction acts up the plane as the mass moves
down the plane (i.e., cosqF,Dx = -1). Use NII to find Ff.
Let perpendicular/upward be positive y:
N - mgcosq = may = 0
Ff = mKN = mKmgcosq
Then,
-mKmgcosq
Dx = KEf -
KEi + PEgf
- PEgi
+ PESf - PESi
Since the mass starts and ends
at rest, both KE terms are zero. The spring starts out
unstretched, so PESo = 0, Let y = 0 where the
mass comes to rest, so that PEgf = 0.
-mKmgcosq
Dx = - PEgi + PESf
= -mgyi + 1/2k[c]2
We need to relate the vertical
height yi
to the distance down the plane Dx: yi = Dx sinq.
-mKmgcosq
Dx = -mgDx sinq + 1/2k[c]2
mK = [mgDx sinq - 1/2k[c]2]/mgcosq Dx =
[sinq - 1/2[k/mg]c]/cosq = tanq - kDx/2mgcosq
mK = tan37o - 100(0.2)/2*2*9.8*cos37o
= 0.11
Another Example:
Consider a massless spring of
constant k hanging from the ceiling. Let's attach a mass m
and allow the mass to settle very slowly to an equilibrium
point.
A) How far does the spring
stretch? What is the total energy in this situation?
Now, let's raise the mass back
to the spring's relaxed position and drop it.
B) How quickly is the mass
moving as it passes through the equilibrium point?
C) How far will the mass drop
before stopping?
Let's let where the spring is
relaxed be y = 0 and let y be positive upward. When the
mass is first attached, the KE is zero (no motion), the PES
is zero (the spring is relaxed) and the PEg is zero
(because we said so), so the total mechanical energy is
zero. Once we lower the mass to its equilibrium position
and let go, we know that the net force on it is zero:
-mg - kc = 0,
so c = Dy = yf
- yi
= yf = -mg/k
It makes sense that this is a
negative number, since the mass would certainly have
descended. Since the mass is at rest, there is no KE, and
the PES will be
PES = 1/2k[c]2
= 1/2k[yf]2 = m2g2/2k
and the PEg will be
PEg = mgyf
= - m2g2/k,
meaning that the total energy
is
ETOT = -m2g2/2k
<
0!
How can this be?
Now, return the mass back to
the spring's relaxed position and drop it. What is the
total energy as it passed through the equilibrium point?
Well, we can write an
expression, but can't actually calculate it:
ETOT = PES
+ PEg + KE
Now, the PEs we did above: m2g2/2k
+
-m2g2/k = -m2g2/2k
Note that we do expect ETOT
to be zero, since this time there were no non-conservative
forces, and mechanical energy should have been conserved. So th
eKE should by given by
KE = ETOT - PETOT
= 0 - -m2g2/2k = +m2g2/2k.
From this, we can find the
mass's speed as it passes through the equilibrium point:
v = [m/k]1/2g.
Eventually, the mass will stop
(KE = 0) and then start moving back upward. Where does
this happen (yff)?
ETOT = 0 = KEff
+ PESff + PEgff = 0 + 1/2k[yff]2
+ mgyff
Note that there are two
solutions to this: yff = 0 (i.e., at the top)
and yff = -2mg/k.
Another Example:
A toy gun launches its projectile by means of a spring, with
unknown spring constant k. If the spring is compressed 0.12
m from its relaxed position and fired vertically, the gun can
launch a 20g projectile from rest to a height of 20m above its
initial position. Find the spring constant k and the speed
of the projectile as it passes through the spring's equilibrium
position (This is S&F 5-28):
Assuming no friction, we can say that there are no
non-conservative forces doing work. So,
WNC = 0 = DKE + DPEGRAVITY + DPESPRING
0 = 1/2mvf2 - 1/2mvi2
+ mgyf - mgyi + 1/2kcf2 - 1/2kci2
Here, c represents the amount the
spring is stretched or compressed and y is the altitude of the
ball.
The object starts at rest and ends at rest, so vi = vf
= 0.
Let the vertical reference level be where the spring is relaxed,
so yi = ci = -
0.12 m, yf = 20m, and cf
= 0 (the spring is again relaxed):
0 = mgyf - mgyi - 1/2kyi2
1/2kyi2 = mgyf
- mgyi
k = 2mg[yf - yi]/yi2
= 2*0.02*9.8[20 - - 0.12]/(0.122) = 547
N/m
Now, go back and find the speed of the object as it passes the
spring's relaxation point. Use the same basic relationship:
0 = 1/2mvf2 - 1/2mvi2
+ mgyf - mgyi + 1/2kcf2 - 1/2kci2
but now, vi = 0, yf = xf = 0,
and ci = yi =
-0.12 m.
0 = 1/2mvf2 + - mgyi
- 1/2kci2
1/2mvf2 = mgyi
+ 1/2kci2
vf2 = 2gyi + (k/m)cio2
vf = [2gyi + (k/m)ci2]1/2
= [2*9.8*(-.12) + (547/0.02m)(-0.12)2]1/2 =
19.3 m/s
Yet Another Example:
Consider a skier at the top of a hemispherical knoll of radius R,
which is covered in slippery snow. He starts from rest at
the top and travels down the side. At what vertical distance
h from the ground will he become airborne?
What forces act on the skier? Are any non-conservative
forces doing work?